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Online Instructor Suite Quiz 1 |
Correct answers are in bold face
1. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) The criminal justice system today is society's instrument of
A. social control
B. political control
C. informal social control
D. both a and b
2. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) Today's criminal justice system can be divided into three main components. Which of the following is not one of these components?
A. law enforcement agencies
B. the correctional system
C. the court system
D. the criminal underworld
3. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) In 1931, President Herbert Hoover appointed the National Commission on Law Observance and Enforcement, which is commonly known as the
A. Wickersham Commission
B. Mullen Commission
C. Hoover Commission
D. Crime Commission
4. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) What is the central purpose of the criminal investigation stage of the formal criminal process?
A. to convict a suspect
B. to gather sufficient evidence to identify, to identify a suspect, and support a legal arrest
C. to bring a suspect to trial
D. to enter a plea bargain
5. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) The informer tells police about some ongoing criminal activity in order to receive favorable treatment. This incident illustrates which phase of the criminal justice process?
A. IAN ARRAIGNMENT
B. A PROBABLE CAUSE HEARING
C. INITIAL CONTACT
D. A PRELIMINARY HEARING
6. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) Arrestee Susan A. is going to enter an initial plea of "not guilty." During which process will she make this plea?
A. a probable cause hearing
B. a preliminary hearing
C. an arraignment
D. disposition
7. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) It is generally accepted that almost ________ percent of all cases end in a plea bargain, rather than a criminal trial.
A. 75
B. 80
C. 85
D. 90
8. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) Which of the following is not reviewed by the appellate courts?
A. whether or not evidence was used properly
B. whether or not the judge conducted the trial in an approved fashion
C. whether or not jury selection was properly done
D. Appellate courts review all of the above
9. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) Samuel Walker describes the informal justice process as a/an
A. picket fence
B. wedding cake
C. assembly line
D. sieve
10. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) Advocates of which perspective argue that the greatest concern of the justice system should be providing fair and equitable treatment to those accused of crime?
A. the crime control perspective
B. the rehabilitation perspective
C. the due process perspective
D. the nonintervention perspective
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Online Instructor Suite Quiz 2 |
Correct answers are in bold face
1. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) Which view of crime infers that the great majority of citizens agree that certain behaviors must be outlawed or controlled and that the criminal law is designed to protect citizens from social harm?
A. conflict view
B. consensus view
C. interactionist view
D. feminist view
2. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) What is the best known and most widely cited source of aggregate criminal statistics?
A. the National Crime Victimization Survey
B. the Uniform Crime Reports
C. the National Youth Survey
D. the US Census
3. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) Which survey is sponsored by the Bureau of Justice Statistics of the US Department of Justice?
A. the National Crime Victimization Survey
B. the Uniform Crime Reports
C. the National Youth Survey
D. the US Census
4. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) Which regions of the country usually have significantly higher rates of crime?
A. the West and the South
B. the MIdwest and New England
C. the Midwest and the South
D. New England and the West
5. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) Cesare Beccaria's views are known as the _____ of crime.
A. routine acitvities approach
B. social structure theory
C. social process theory
D. classical theory
6. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) According to this theory, indicators of neighborhood disorder are highly predictive of crime rates
A. conflict theory
B. social structure theory
C. social process theory
D. developmental theory
7. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) Which approach to crime says people become criminals when significant members of society label them as such and they accept those labels as a personal identity?
A. social learning theory
B. social control theory
C. social reaction theory
D. social structure theory
8. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) Victimization risk diminishes rapidly after age
A. 15
B. 18
C. 21
D. 25
9. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) Which of the following groups experiences violent crimes at a higher rate than other groups?
A. Whites
B. Latinos
C. Asians
D. African Americans
10. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) Over the past decade, the number of arrests has trended downward with the exception of arrests for
A. homicides
B. assaults
C. drug violations
D. DUIs
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Online Instructor Suite Quiz 3 |
Correct answers are in bold face
1. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) All of the following statements except one apply to criminal law
A. Crime is a public offense.
B. The right of enforcement belongs to the state.
C. Both parties can appeal.
D. Fines go to the state.
2. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) The concept of lex talionis, which still guides proportionality in punishment, can be found in the law of:
A. Moses
B. Justinian
C. Hammurabi
D. ten noble Roman men
3. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) The term stare decisis means
A. an eye for an eye
B. inherently evil
C. statute created by a legislative body
D. to stand by decided cases
4. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) Acts that are considered inherently evil and depraved are referred to as
A. mala in se
B. mala prohibita
C. stare decisis
D. torts
5. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) Which of the following is not one of the three major sources of the criminal law?
A. common law, statutes, and case decisions
B. administrative rules and regulations
C. constitutional laws
D. All of the above are major sources of criminal law.
6. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) The first ten amendments to the US Constitution are collectively known as the
A. Bill of Rights
B. Declaration of Independence
C. Magna Carta
D. Articles of Confederation
7. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) The concept of due process is found in both the _____ and Fourteenth Amendments
A. Fourth
B. Fifth
C. Sixth
D. Eighth
8. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) As used in the US courts, insanity means that the defendant lacked the necessary _______ to satisfy the legal definition of a crime.
A. mens rea
B. actus reus
C. lex talionus
D. stare decisis
9. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) The intent to commit the criminal act is referred to as
A. mens rea
B. actus reus
C. lex talionus
D. stare decisis
10. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) Which one of the legal standards of mental illness below refers to the M'Naughten test?
A. "didn't know what he was doing or didn't know it was wrong"
B. "could not control his conduct"
C. "lacks substantial capacity to appreciate the wrongfulness of his conduct or to control it"
D. "lacks capacity to appreciate the wrongfulness of his conduct"
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Online Instructor Suite Chapter 4 |
Correct answers are in bold face
1. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) Which one of the following in NOT one of the explanations offered for terrorism in the text?
A. social learning view
B. socialization view
C. alienation view
D. psychological view
2. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) The term "terror" was associated with unrest in what country in 1917?
A. France
B. Germany
C. Russia
D. Ireland
3. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) Al Qaeda distributes money and tactical support and training to a wide variety of radical _____ terrorist groups.
A. Buddhist
B. Islamic
C. Jewish
D. All of the above
4. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) Which agency's responsibilities include collecting foreign intelligence, conducting counterintelligence, and developing intelligence gathering techniques?
A. Central Intelligence Agency
B. Air Force Intelligence
C. National Reconnaissance Office
D. Federal Bureau of Investigation
5. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) In what year did Congress pass legislation authorizing the creation of the Department of Homeland Security?
A. 2001
B. 2002
C. 2003
D. 2004
6. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) All but which one of the following are aims of the USA PATRIOT Act?
A. to give sweeping new powers to domestic law enforcement and international intellignece agencies to in an effort to fight terrorism
B. to expand the definition of terrorist activities
C. to alter sanctions for violent terrorism
D. All of the above are aims of the USA PATRIOT Act
7. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) Civil libertarians argue that _____ Amendment rights may be violated by the USA PATRIOT Act.
A. First
B. Fourth
C. Fifth
D. Eighth
8. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) ______ is slang for the processes used to acquire personal information used for identity theft and other fraudulent activities.
A. Phishing
B. Skating
C. Peeking
D. Skimming
9. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) Which of the following countries has the highest piracy rates?
A. Indonesia
B. United States
C. Sweden
D. Thailand
10. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) It is difficult to detect and control INTERNET pornography. Congress has struggled to create legislation that will restrict usage without violating _____ Amendment Rights.
A. First
B. Fourth
C. Sixth
D. Eighth
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Online Instructor Suite Chapter 5 |
Correct answers are in bold face
1. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) In the pledge system, people were grouped in collectives of ten families known as what?
A. Tithings
B. Shires
C. Watches
D. Reeves
2. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) What English home secretary was responsible for guiding the enactment of the Metropolitan Police Act through Parliament?
A. Sir Robert Peel
B. Sir Henry Fielding
C. Sir Arthur Conan Doyle
D. Sir James McDonald
3. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) Who operated his own group of paid police out of Bow Street in London?
A. August Vollmer
B. Sir Robert Peel
C. Henry Fielding
D. Jack Wild
4. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) _____________ was the Berkley, Calif. police chief who is considered to have stimulated the police professionalism movement in the early 20th century.
A. Fielding
B. Vollmer
C. Kennison
D. Parker
5. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) In 1964, only one city, _____ had a police computer system.
A. Cape Girardeau
B. Chicago
C. New York
D. St Louis
6. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) What federal program supported innovative research on police work and advanced training for police officers during the 1970's?
A. The Criminal Justice Institute
B. The National Institute of Justice
C. The Law Enforcement Assistance Administration
D. The Federal Crime Bill
7. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) Who heads the U.S. Department of Justice?
A. The U.S. Attorney General
B. The Secretary of the Treasury
C. The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
D. The Secretary of State
8. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) What is AFIS?
A. It is a national data base of DNA records
B. It is a computerized fingerprint system
C. It is an automated stolen vehicle
D. It is an up-to-date fugitive identification system
9. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) Which agency has jurisdiction over explosives?
A. Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, and Firearms
B. Secret Service
C. Customs Service
D. Drug Enforcement Administration
10. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) Sophisticated computer software used to conduct analysis of behavior patterns is called
A. crime mapping
B. ICAM
C. data mining
D. information technology
Online Instructor Suite
Chapter 6
Correct answers are in bold face
1. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) Most police agencies are organized in what manner?
A. In a cooperative, democratic manner
B. In a private business-like manner
C. In a militaristic, hierarchical manner
D. In a participatory, egalitarian
2. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) Most police departments follow what style of promotion and advancement?
A. The productivity style
B. The private-business style
C. The Unionization style
D. Time-in-rank
3. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) Most police experts agree that the bulk of police patrol efforts are devoted to what?
A. Crime fighting
B. Order maintenance
C. Law enforcement
D. Combating boredom
4. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) _______ is a police department policy emphasizing stopping crimes before they occur rather than reacting to crimes that have already occurred.
A. Community policing
B. Proactive policing
C. Deterrent policing
D. Reactive policing
5. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) What conclusion was drawn from the Kansas City Preventive Patrol study?
A. Proactive patrolling increased crime rates and increased fear of crime
B. Reactive patrolling increased crime rates and reduced fear of crime
C. Normal police patrol reduced crime rates and reduced fear of crime
D. There was little variation between patrol activities in terms of crime rates and fear of crime
6. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) The broken windows approach holds that, for police, all but one of the following should be the primary focus of patrol:
A. community preservation
B. public safety
C. order maintenance
D. crime fighting
7. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) The research on criminal investigation shows:
A. Detectives are highly effective at solving cases
B. The best chance of solving the crime is when it is reported in-progress
C. Detectives and patrol officers work well together
8. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) Which of the following is not one of the major purposes of patrol listed in your text?
A. deter crime by maintaining a visible police presence
B. create a feeling of fear among criminals
C. identify and apprehend law violators
D. facilitate the movement of traffic and people
9. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) Your text notes that if they are to be successful, community policing strategies must be able to react effectively to some significant administrative problems. Which one of the following is NOT one of these problems?
A. defining community
B. re-orienting police values
C. revising training
D. reducing police corruption
10. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) Operation Ceasefire is a problem-oriented policing intervention aimed at reducing youth homicide and youth firearms violence in St. Louis.
A. True
B. False
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Online Instructor Suite Chapter 7 |
Correct answers are in bold face
1. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) although not requiring college credits for promotion, ______percent of the larger police departments recognize that college education is an important element in promotion decisions.
A. 82
B. 86
C. 94
D. 97
2. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) A police officer who searches a suspect incident to a lawful arrest generally observes two rules. One rule is that the search is made at the time of the arrest and the other rule is what?
A. That the officer inform the suspect of his or her right to refuse to consent to the search
B. The search be limited to that area within the suspect's immediate control
C. That the search be based on probably cause
D. That the suspect is advised of his or her Miranda rights
3. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) Police bending of the rules to protect the public has been referred to as
A. the "beat'em and weep problem."
B. the "Dirty Harry problem."
C. the Rodney King problem."
D. the "thin blue line problem."
4. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) The most controversial issue revolving around the Court's control of police behavior is what is commonly known as the
A. Miranda warning
B. public safety doctrine
C. exclusionary rule
D. use of informers
5. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) An officer observes a car pass by and notices two subjects in the backseat drinking beer. The officer stops the car and seizes the six-pack of beer sitting on the backseat. She also administers a field sobriety test to the driver, who fails it, and she subsequently arrests the driver for drunk driving. The seizure of the six-pack is admissible under what rule of law?
A. Plain view
B. Consent
C. Probable cause
D. Inevitable discovery
6. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) When police wish to vigorously interrogate a suspect, they must honor the _____ Amendment's prohibition against forcing people to incriminate themselves.
A. Fourth
B. Fifth
C. Eighth
D. Fourteenth
7. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) Which type of police officers aggressively misuses police power for personal gain by demanding bribes, threatening legal actions or cooperating with criminals?
A. meat eaters
B. grass eaters
C. rotten apples
D. "Dirty Harry's"
E. All are rights afforded by Miranda
8. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) Which decision made the exclusionary rule binding on state courts?
A. Mapp v. Ohio
B. Wolf v. Colorado
C. Illinois v. Gates
D. Weeks v. United States
9. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) To some commentators, the typical police personality can be described as all but which one of the following?
A. hostile
B. authoritarian
C. dogmatic
D. suspicious
10. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) An examination of the literature suggests that four styles of police work seem to fit the current behavior patterns of most police agents. Which one of the following is not one of these behavior patterns?
A. The crime fighter
B. the social agent
C. the superhero
D. the watchman
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Online Instructor Suite Chapter 8 |
1. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) The "jurisdiction" of a court refers to
A. the geographical area it covers.
B. the subject matter it deals with.
C. both a and b
2. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) Which is true of appellate courts?
A. They are the most numerous of all state courts
B. They only hear cases that are the products of felony indictments
C. They retry all cases upon appeal
D. They review the procedures of the case to determine if an error was made by judicial authorities
3. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) Which courts was the only court established by constitutional mandate, rather than federal legislation?
A. the US district court
B. The US circuit court
C. The US supreme court
D. All courts in the US have been established by constitutional mandate
4. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) What are the trial courts of the federal system?
A. The district courts
B. The appellate courts
C. The circuit courts
D. The supreme court
5. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) How long do U.S. Supreme Court justices serve?
A. For a maximum of ten years
B. For a maximum of twenty five years
C. Until they reach a mandatory retirement age of seventy five
D. For life
6. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) What technical device does the Supreme Court use to decide what cases it should hear?
A. The writ of habeas corpus
B. The issuance of legalis
C. The writ of certiorari
D. The mandate of precedence
7. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) What is considered to be the key to the prosecutorial function?
A. The power to institute or discontinue formal charges against the defendant
B. The ability to manage human resources in the courtroom workgroup
C. The knowledge of case law, statute and verbal agreement
D. The ability to give advice and support to law enforcement
8. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) Which landmark case held in 1963 that state courts must provide counsel to indigent defendants in felony prosecutions?
A. Argersinger v. Hamlin
B. Gainer v. United States
C. Bounds v. Smith
D. Gideon v. Wainwright
9. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) Which type of indigent defense system serves approximately 68% of the American population?
A. Public defender
B. Law school clinical
C. Assigned counsel
D. Contract attorneys
10. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) The federal court system has long provided counsel to the indigent defendant on the basis of which amendment to the US Constitution?
A. Fourth
B. Fifth
C. Sixth
D. Eighth
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Online Instructor Suite Quiz 9 |
1. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) What amendment to the U.S. Constitution prohibits "excessive bail?"
A. fourth
B. fifth
C. sixth
D. eighth
2. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) More than _____ of all violent criminals are now released on bail, including people on trial for murder.
A. 1/4
B. 1/3
C. 1/2
D. 2/3
3. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) What type of pretrial release of felony defendants is most common in the 75 largest counties in the U.S.
A. unsecured bail
B. deposit bail
C. surety bail
D. cash bail
4. (True/False; 1 point) About one-half of released defendants were either rearrested for a new offense, failed to appear in court as scheduled, or committed some other violation that resulted in the revocation of their pretrial release.
A. True
B. False
5. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) Under _______, no freeman could be seized and imprisoned unless he had been judged by his peers.
A. Magna Carta
B. the Bill of Rights
C. the Declaration of Independence
D. Roman Law
6. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) The _______ is used in many states as an alternative to the grand jury.
A. arraignment
B. presentment
C. preliminary hearing
D. information
7. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) A/an ____ is a charging document drawn up by a prosecutor in jurisdictions that do not use the grand jury system.
A. warrant
B. complaint
C. indictment
D. information
8. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) Ordinarily, a defendant in a criminal trial will enter one of three pleas. Which of the following is not one of these pleas?
A. guilty
B. not guilty
C. insanity
D. nolo contendere
9. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) More than what percent of defendants appearing before the courts plead guilty prior to the trial stage?
A. 60%
B. 70%
C. 80%
D. 90%
10. (True/False; 1 point) One of the most confusing problems in the plea-bargaining process has been the proper role of the judge.
A. True
B. False
Online Instructor Suite
Quiz 10
Correct answers are in bold face
1. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) Which amendment states "in all prosecutions, the accused shall enjoy the right …to be confronted with the witnesses against him"?
A. The First Amendment
B. The Second Amendment
C. The Sixth Amendment
D. The Fourteenth Amendment
2. (True/False; 1 point) Hearsay evidence is permitted because the accused has the right to confront the witnesses and challenge their assertions and perceptions.
A. True
B. False
3. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) A procedural device that allows a judge to instruct the jury to acquit a defendant because the state did not prove all the elements of the alleged crime is knows as a
A. Instructions to the Jury
B. Directed Verdict
C. Closing Arguments
D. none of the above
4. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) Which case prevents an element of racial discrimination from entering into the trial stage of justice, which is one of the cornerstones of American freedom.
A. Batson v. Kentucky
B. Williams v. Florida
C. Opodica v. Oregon
D. Lewis v. United States
5. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) The process of determining the appropriateness of jurors to sit on the jury is known as what?
A. Voir dire
B. Venire
C. The jury array
D. The process of surrebuttal
6. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) If a jury verdict cannot be reached, the trial may result in a
A. collateral attack
B. in forma pauperis
C. hung jury
7. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) During jury selection, challenges for cause are normally limited to how many?
A. Six
B. Twelve
C. Twenty-three
D. There normally is no limit to the number of these challenges
8. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) The initial list of persons chosen as a group of potentially capable citizens able to serve on a jury is called
A. voir dire
B. the preemptory challenge list
C. the grand jury
D. venire
9. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) The instructions to the jury are made by
A. the judge
B. both attorneys
C. the bailiff
D. the prosecutor
10. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) Which person listed below handles the administrative affairs of the trial, including the random selection of names to fill what she/he believes will be the required number of places on the jury?
A. the judge
B. the prosecutor
C. the court clerk
D. the baliff
Online Instructor Suite
Quiz 11
Correct answers are in bold face
1. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) Who authored The State of the Prisons?
A. John Howard
B. Cesare Beccaria
C. William Penn
D. Benjamin Rush
2. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) In what case did the court decide the death penalty, as administered, constituted cruel and unusual punishment?
A. Baldwin v. New York
B. Gregg v. Georgia
C. Florida v. Argersinger
D. Furman v. Georgia
3. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) The Gregg decision holds what?
A. The death penalty is cruel and unusual
B. That prosecutorial peremptory challenges based on race are unconstitutional
C. Juries in death penalty cases must find "aggravating circumstances" in order to return a penalty of death.
D. Peremptory challenges may not be limited to less than five by state statute.
4. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) Prison sentences for two or more criminal acts served one after the other are known as ______ sentences.
A. concurrent
B. consecutive
C. indeterminate
D. determinate
5. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) Supporters of rehabilitation most likely favor ___________ sentences.
A. Indeterminate
B. Determinate
C. Consecutive
D. Mandatory
6. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) One of the most common arguments for retaining the death penalty in the United States is __________, because it provides the greatest justice for the victim and helps alleviate the psychic pain of the victim's family and friends.
A. deterrence
B. moral correctness
C. proportional to the crime
D. reflects public opinion
7. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) A sentence that requires a specific penalty is a ________________ sentence.
A. Indeterminate
B. Standard
C. Mandatory
D. Presumptive
8. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) The practice of sentencing English convicts to "transportation" to America ended
A. With the Emancipation Proclamation
B. With the development of the United Nations
C. With the United States Constitution
D. With the Revolutionary War
9. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) The idea of vengeance is most closely associated with _____________________.
A. General Deterrence
B. Equity
C. Incapacitation
D. Retribution
10. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) Which goal/objective of punishment implied that by punishing a particular offender, the rest of society would refrain from that behavior.
A. General Deterrence
B. Incapacitation
C. Retribution
D. Specific Deterrence
Online Instructor Suite
Quiz 12
Correct answers are in bold face
1. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) The "father" of probation in the United States is:
A. John Howard
B. Zebulon Brockway
C. John Augustus
D. Martinson
2. (True/False; 1 point) National data indicate that about 60% of probationers successfully complete their probationary sentence.
A. True
B. False
3. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) The Presentence Report is prepared by:
A. A probation officer
B. The police
C. The bailiff
D. The judge
4. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) The conditions of probation are established by:
A. The judge
B. The prosecutor
C. The state legislature
D. The Department of Corrections
5. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) Which of the following is not one of the primary duties of the probation officer?
A. Intake
B. Investigation
C. Diagnosis
D. Sentencing
6. (True/False; 1 point) House arrest is a form of intermediate sentencing that requires an offender to spend a designated amount of time in his or her own home as an alternate to incarceration.
A. True
B. False
7. (True/False; 1 point) Probationers have a right to counsel when facing revocation.
A. True
B. False
8. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) According to the basic principles of restorative justice, what is the first priority of the justice process?
A. to restore the community, to the degree possible
B. to shame the offender
C. to assist victims
D. to treat all offenders equally
9. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) Monetary restitution is most likely a:
A. Condition of Probation
B. Condition of Confinement
C. Split sentence
D. Condition of Parole
10. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) Which is not true of Intensive Supervision Probation?
A. Officers have smaller caseloads
B. Officers spend more time with their clients
C. High-Risk Offenders can be maintained in the community.
D. All are true.
Online Instructor Suite
Quiz 13
Correct answers are in bold face
1. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) A _______ is a correctional facility that holds convicted felony offenders for sentences in excess of one year.
A. jail
B. prison
2. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) The origins of the modern correctional system in the United States is most closely associated with ____________________.
A. the Catholic Church
B. the Quakers
C. the Muslims
D. the Methodists
3. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) Which prison system was known as the congregate system, since most prisoners ate and worked in groups?
A. the Auburn system
B. Elmira Reformatory
C. the Pennsylvania system
D. the federal system
4. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) The _________ system eventually prevailed and spread throughout the United States; many of its features are still in use today.
A. Elmira
B. Auburn
C. Pennsylvania
D. Alcatraz
5. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) The first reformatory in the United States was conceived by __________________.
A. Brockway
B. Howard
C. Augustus
D. Penn
6. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) White-collar and nonviolent offenders are most likely housed in ___________-facilities?
A. ultra maximum security
B. maximum security
C. medium security
D. minimum security
7. (True/False; 1 point) The population of female inmates is increasing more rapidly than male inmates.
A. True
B. False
8. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) Which types of jails contain a cluster of cells surrounding a "pod?"
A. linear jails
B. direct supervision jails
C. indirect supervision jails
D. maximum-security jails
9. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) Currently, the United States has more private prisons than public prisons.
A. true
B. false
10. (Multiple Choice; 1 point) What type of crimes did the largest percentage of inmates commit to earn their prison sentence
A. violent crimes
B. drug offenses
C. property crimes
D. public-order crimes